PSA Airlines CRJ 700 & 900 Systems Practice Test

These questions are part of the practice quiz. Start practicing

• How is the speed of the wipers determined when in use?
• What provides fuel to the APU?
• How is Exciter B powered?
• The BTMS readout range that indicates normal brake heat is which of the following?
• During a go-around initiated by TOGA, what happens to the flight directors' pitch cue?
• Where does power for the APU and engine fire extinguishers and fuel and hydraulic shutoff valves come from?
• Pushing an engine fire push switchlight triggers which of the following actions?
• What does the amber fault light on an IDG switchlight indicate?
• Which statement best describes radar attenuation?
• APU fuel is drawn from which source?
• In TCAS Above mode, what is the display range for targets relative to the own aircraft altitude?
• When using flex thrust for takeoff, what must the pilot in command verify prior to takeoff?
• After pulling the roll disconnect handle, which surfaces do the left and right yokes control?
• How many times can a generator be reset for the same fault inflight?
• Which pumps are not controlled by the hydraulic control panel?
• Will the APU extinguishing bottle fire automatically in flight?
• Where is the brake energy chart found?
• When is the DC emergency bus displayed on the DC synoptic page?
• What holds the main landing gear in the extended position?
• What is the total gravity fuel capacity?
• How are DME channels allocated among the navigation systems?
• If the active stab trim motor fails, what happens?
• Which ignition exciter is powered by the AC essential bus?
• What is the capacity of each wing tank under pressure refueling?
• Which idle is the lowest N2 setting?
• What powers the 2 EICAS screens?
• What is the DC service switch used for?
• At what altitude will the half bank flight director commands automatically generate?
• When are caution messages inhibited on takeoff?
• What minimum voltage must be present prior to starting the APU?
• What is indicated by the illumination of the green lights next to the HDG button, on the flight control panel?
• How are the DC bus ties controlled?
• In an aircraft with no power switched on, which buses are powered?
• Can the left engine's FADEC control the right engine?
• Which option best describes the role of the operability valve and variable geometry system?
• Which power source activates the cockpit voice recorder's recording?
• When will the hydraulic one or two high temperature caution be displayed?
• If the autopilot and flight directors are off, which FMA will be active if the autopilot is engaged?
• What happens if you move the tiller in-flight with the gear extended?
• The rudder travel limiter receives airspeed inputs from which sources?
• When the AC essential transfer switchlight is illuminated, which bus is the AC essential bus powered by?
• What is the total fuel capacity when pressure refueling is used?
• What BTMS color range corresponds to normal brake heat?
• What is the power rating of the ADG?
• What is a time limit for normal or flex thrust?
• How many smoke detectors are in the aft cargo bay?
• How is Exciter A powered?
• How many passenger oxygen masks are in each row on both sides of the aisle?
• If the ADG handle is not pulled after auto deployment, what is the likely consequence for the DC essential bus?
• Which flap range is specified for the takeoff configuration advisory?
• What parameters must be set on the display control panel to get a good TCAS test?
• What effect will a loss of hydraulic systems two and three have on the landing gear?
• The trend vector on the airspeed tape tells you aircraft speed in how many seconds if conditions remain unchanged?
• When does the cockpit voice recorder begin recording?
• What is the combined capacity of both wing tanks under pressure refueling?
• Bleed air extraction involves six and ten stages. Which statement is true?
• In TCAS, which of the following correctly describes the target display ranges for the four modes Norm, Above, Below, and ABV/BLW?
• If the aircraft exceeds +30° or -20° of pitch or 65° of bank what will the PFD do?
• On the hydraulic synoptic page, what does amber mean?
• How many smoke detectors are in the forward cargo bay?
• What do the TOGA switches on the thrust levers do for normal take off?
• What is the maximum altitude for single pack operations in the CRJ 700?
• What is the static source for CPAM on EICAS?
• When is half bank inhibited?
• Which aural warning is used for stall?
• What happens if one slat or flap motor fails?
• If hydraulic systems two and three fail, what is the status of the nose gear?
• How much critical aircraft and flight parameter data is stored by the FDR?
• Engine fire detection loops are counted as how many?
• What is the pressure to which brake accumulators are charged?
• When a fire is detected in the APU on the ground, what happens?
• DCU number one and number two switchlights on the audio warning panel are used to:
• When is the DC utility bus shed?
• What controls the landing gear?
• Which action is performed by pressing the cargo smoke switchlight?
• Which statement describes the location of the two walk-around oxygen bottles?
• What is locked wheel protection?
• What is the maximum current rating of each TRU?
• What primary conditions must be satisfied for the TO/TO FMA to activate?
• Which bus powers the passenger service units (reading lights)?
• What inputs does the FMS use for determining position information?
• What color is the line that appears on the barometric altimeter when MDA is selected?
• At what RPM is fuel introduced during APU start?
• What type of windshear will cause the autopilot to disconnect?
• How can ground crew shut down an unattended APU?
• If ED1 fails what will happen in the cockpit?
• When will the oil pressure gauges be present on the primary display in addition to the digital readout?
• At what speed does the FADEC lock in the final N1 computation during take off?
• Which option accurately states the ADG's electrical output?
• During an overspeed event, what action do the FADEC channels take regarding the fuel valve?
• In an engine failure, which detent is used for the APR command on the operative engine?
• Setting a DH on the air data reference panel causes a cyan line to appear on which instrument?
• What will the FADEC command if a thrust reverser deploys in flight?
• Which hydraulic system raises and lowers the gear?
• Which description best matches the function of the operability valve and variable geometry system?
• When an engine fire push switchlight is pressed, what happens to the engine driven generator?
• When an engine fails, what will the operative engine's FADEC automatically command?
• From which tank does the APU take fuel?
• The DC service switch connects the DC service bus to which source?
• What is the total number of passenger oxygen masks per row across both sides of the aisle?
• How many radio altimeters are there?
• The LCV maintains the manifold pressure at what value?
• What component initiates release of halon in the lavatory extinguisher?
• Setting an MDA on the air data reference panel causes a cyan line to appear on which instrument?
• Which components are activated when the engine fire push switchlight is pressed?
• Do the left and right FADECs cross talk? If so, what information do they use?
• When does the CVR start recording?
• When the APU power fuel switch light is pressed, which of the following occurs?
• What does the green line on the airspeed tape indicate?
• Can hydraulic quantity be accurately read without the system energized?
• What drives the N1 fan?
• Which probe is not heated on the ground?
• Is the capacitance system calibrated for ground or flight conditions?
• What is each TRU rated at?
• During ADG operation, what speed are the flaps and slats at?
• When is APR armed on takeoff?
• What is the maximum cabin pressure differential limit?
• What is the function of yaw dampers?
• Describe the fuel tank venting system.
• How is the lavatory fire extinguisher activated?
• Which combination of conditions must be satisfied for the takeoff config OK advisory message to display?
• If the cabin altitude caution message exists, what altitude range is indicated?
• Can a flight be dispatched with one engine or APU fire detection loop in operation?
• What conditions should the oxygen blowout disk be in?
• What protects the flight controls in the event of a PCU runaway?
• During nose gear retraction, what mechanism keeps the wheel centered when hydraulic pressure is removed?
• Which statement about the ADG is true?
• Touchdown protection?
• With DC power only, what is the maximum duration for ground ops?
• Is there a time when both FADEC channels will control the engine simultaneously?
• How many DC bus ties are there and what are their names?
• How can the autopilot be disengaged?
• Which of the following statements about the 1B and 2B hydraulic pumps is true?
• What is the normal hydraulic system pressure?
• The cross side tuning technique is used to regain control of which system after an RTU failure?
• What powers the FADEC?
• Can hydraulic pump 3B be deselected after an ADG deployment?
• The DC essential bus primarily provides power for which cockpit system?
• What drives the accessory gearbox?
• When must DME hold be selected?
• On the ground, if the aileron trim is moved out of the normal range, what color does the indicator show?
• The DC service switch connects the DC service bus to which source?
• What is the normal accumulator charge?
• What protection prevents stab trim runaway damage?
• Which statement about APU oil temperature or oil pressure shutdown is true?
• Which system monitors cabin pressure to control automatic deployment of passenger masks?
• After the nose gear is extended, do the gear doors close?
• How can external power be used by groundcrew if the cockpit door is locked?
• When are caution messages inhibited on landing?
• If the APU boost pump fails, will the APU continue to run?
• What is COM three used for?
• What ensures continued engine control if the primary FADEC channel fails?
• How many engine fire detection loops are there?
• What does an amber fault light on the manual pressurization controller indicate?
• Two minutes at idle after landing is required before engine shutdown.
• When will one engine FADEC assume the other engine has failed?
• What is the N2 synchronization requirement between the left and right engines?
• In the engine stage description, which component is fixed and directs air to the next rotor in an engine stage?
• Which unit sends the centering signal for the nose wheel after takeoff?
• Describe the fuel quantity gauging system.
• Which action should be taken if ground spoilers fail to deploy after touchdown?
• If ED1 fails, which ED becomes the primary page?
• Will the APU shut down automatically on the ground for a fire?
• What is the time limit on battery power without the APU or external power, and why?
• How many DME channels is the aircraft equipped with?
• Will the APU shut down in flight due to high oil temperature or low oil pressure?
• Which lateral mode is used for navigation during a localizer approach?
• How many DC buses are there?
• If the air driven generator is providing power to pump 3B, can it be manually turned off?
• In an increasing wind shear condition, where will the windshear indication appear?
• Which control wheel is the autopilot roll servo connected to?
• How many cargo fire bottles are installed on the aircraft?
• During ADG operation, which systems are powered?
• What is the maximum altitude for engine relight?
• How many magnetic level indicators are there on the aircraft?
• Is there ITT protection and subsequent auto shut down in flight?
• During a go-around, what happens to the autopilot?
• How many FADEC channels are there and when do the channels change?
• What color will FLEX thrust rating be displayed in on the primary display?
• What powers the variable geometry vanes?
• How many stab trim motors are active at a time?
• On the ground, when the aileron trim is in the normal range, what color is displayed?
• Where is the crew oxygen bottle located?
• Where else can oxygen bottle pressure be read?
• How many fire detection loops are in the APU?
• Bleed air is extracted from which compressor stages, and what is it used for?
• How are the ejector pumps in the wings operated?
• Where is the APU shut off switch accessible to ground personnel?
• Which aural warning is used for over speed?
• At what altitude will the surge control valve open?
• Which panel is used to set a DH or MDA?
• Which BTMS color corresponds to a 7-14 readout range?
• What provides gust lock protection on the ground?
• During the start cycle, FADEC removes power from the starter solenoid when N2 RPM exceeds what percent?
• When will the wheel brake temperature indicators disappear?
• What happens if both FADEC channels fail or the FADEC loses power?
• Which buses are powered by the ADG?
• During a TOGA go-around, what happens to the half bank switch?
• What protects the ailerons from flutter in the event of a loss of pressure to the PCUs?
• How many overheat detection loops are in the main landing gear bay?
• Which mode replaces IAS at approximately 31,600 feet?
• If low pressure air is connected, which doors must remain open?
• Where is crew oxygen bottle pressure read?
• What is the purpose of the load control valve (LCV)?
• How many seconds of warning is provided by a resolution advisory?
• During APU start, at approximately what RPM and time is the APU SOV message removed and the green APU available light observed?
• How can an actual temperature be calculated based on the BTMS readings?
• How are the slats and flaps operated?
• If the cross tie closes what else will close?
• Which statement describes the cooling status of System 3?
• Which system provides power to the nosewheel steering?
• How many PCUs power the rudder?
• What does closure of the main tie accomplish?
• What is the normal reservoir quantity range?
• At what cabin altitude will the crew oxygen mask provide 100% regardless of switch position?
• Where are the hand held fire extinguishers located on the 700?
• In an emergency power situation using only batteries, how many minutes of battery life does each APU start attempt cost?
• Which device powers DC bus two after a main tie closure when TRU1 is providing power?
• Which device on the accessory gearbox is used to start the engine?
• What is the purpose of the five magnetic level indicators?
• Which warnings will the DCU audio warning inhibit switches but not cancel?
• How are cargo firebottles discharged?
• How many TRUs are there and what is their maximum power rating?
• Where are the DCU number one and number two switchlights located?
• Why is it important to provide APU or external electrical power to the aircraft within five minutes of energizing the battery?
• If the pitch disconnect handle is pulled, is autopilot still available?
• Which statement best describes the purpose of the APU door speed restriction in flight?
• What does a cabin altitude caution message on ED 1 indicate?
• Which of the following statements about the windscreen heat distribution when set to high is true?
• How many chimes are heard for a warning message?
• Will the APU shut down on the ground due to high oil temperature or low oil pressure?
• From an accumulator charge, how many brake applications are available?
• In flight, what color is the aileron trim indicator regardless of trim position?
• Half bank reduces maximum bank angle to what?
• Under which conditions will the too-low gear warning sound?
• How is the APU fire bottle released?
• Which four buttons on the EICAS control panel are mechanical and remain usable if the ECP microprocessor fails?
• When will the continuous ignition fire automatically?
• What holds the nose gear in the retracted position?
• If an RTU fails what can be done to regain control of its radios?
• Which statement best describes the five engine idle states?
• What is the elevator travel?
• How long can the batteries provide DC emergency power?
• Where is the APU battery located?
• How many engine-driven hydraulic pumps are there?
• Which pair are the yaw dampers labeled as?
• Can the emergency depress button be pushed at 18,000 feet cabin pressure altitude?
• What is the power transfer override button used for?
• What does the ReSet Initial Position message displayed on the FMS mean?
• The APU draws fuel from which source?
• The operability valve works in conjunction with variable geometry vanes to remove internal air pressure from which engine component?
• What keeps the nose wheel centered once hydraulic pressure is removed?
• Which stab trim channel is powered by the ADG?
• How many hydraulic pumps are there?
• Does autopilot disengage when manual trim on the control yoke is used?
• Under what conditions does the left or right oil level low status message appear?
• Setting the ground lift dumping switch to MAN ARM would accomplish what?
• Which hydraulic systems are cooled by ram air in flight?
• What percentage of engine thrust is produced by the N1 fan?
• If both hydraulic systems II and III fail, what happens?
• What is the restriction for use of the portable halon extinguisher on the flight deck?
• Which statement about the DC emergency bus power sources is true?
• Why is the APU door restricted during flight speed?
• The FLEX thrust rating is displayed in which color on the primary display?
• What is the operability valve?
• When the APU is supplying electrical power, which system has priority?
• The elevator PCUs are associated with how many hydraulic systems?
• What happens at 31,600 feet?
• In flight, what RPM must the APU stay below if starting becomes necessary?
• During APU start, what indicators appear on the status page and the switchlight?
• Which hydraulic systems must be activated to check brake wear indicators?
• After landing, what thrust must the engine be at for two minutes prior to shutdown?
• Which tank can only be pressure refueled?
• Indicated Mach is displayed above the airspeed tape when the aircraft accelerates through which Mach number?
• What does auto trim compensate for?
• Which option is NOT used by the FMS for position information?
• How is normal power restored after an ADG deployment if a generator returns?
• Which statement about the APU door restriction is true?
• During a TOGA go-around, what does the FMS do with missed approach waypoints?
• How many stages does the low-pressure turbine have, and how many stages does the high-pressure turbine have?
• The APU will not start if the APU RPM is rotating above what speed on the ground versus in flight?
• Where is the rudder or aileron trim indicated?
• What comprises an engine stage?
• When does the digital fuel readout turn amber?
• How many FADEC channels are used at once?
• What are the maximum steering angles for the nose tiller and the rudder?
• Why must the ADG handle be pulled after an auto deployment?
• How many PCUs are associated with the elevator system?
• Can the AHRS be aligned in steady state straight and level flight?
• If booting the AHRS in DG mode how long could the initialization process take?
• When the windshield heat switch is set to high, what happens?
• What is the engine cool-down limitation?
• What is the maximum starting altitude for the APU on the 700/900?
• Which two ties are designated as essential?
• When will the electric pumps automatically activate?
• On the flight mode annunciator in the upper left corner of the PFD, which option correctly describes the color coding for the current and armed modes?
• How can you box caution messages?
• If the APU shuts down automatically due to fire on the ground will the bottle fire?
• From which component is fuel transferred from center tanks to the main tanks?
• How is N2 vibration monitored?
• How many seconds of warning is provided by a traffic advisory?
• When will the N1 vibration gauges replace the oil gauges?
• Which ignition exciter is powered by the battery bus through a static inverter?
• What powers the operability valve?
• The vented access panel for the crew oxygen bottle is located on which side of the main cabin door?
• How many green roll select lights are used to indicate PCU status?
• Is dispatch authorized if the fuel quantity indication computer is inoperative?
• Engine relight altitude is specified as flight level what?
• Which of the following is NOT a use of bleed air?
• Which pressure is crucial for the APU manifold to support electrical power?
• Why must we fly within 60 minutes of a suitable airport while carrying cargo?
• Which option correctly identifies the APU fuel pump's voltage?
• What are the engine warm-up limitations?
• When will the ADG automatically deploy?
• How many AC buses are there?
• What are the three interconnected fuel pumps in the accessory gearbox?
• What is the primary purpose of the auxiliary power unit (APU) on the aircraft?
• Which statement describes the APU fuel supply arrangement from the left collector tank?
• How are the Different hydraulic systems cooled?
• How many AC buses are there and how many DC buses are there?
• Which of the following would cause the APU to automatically shut down?
• If ED1 fails, how can the synoptic pages be viewed?
• When an engine fire push switchlight is pressed, what happens to the fuel feed shutoff valve?
• On the hydraulic synoptic page, a white indication signifies what about the system?
• Which protection prevents excessive control surface movement in a PCU runaway condition?
• Which condition will produce a bleed misconfig caution message?
• The autopilot pitch servo is located on which flight deck side?
• What indications will the pilot have when a decreasing performance wind shear condition is encountered?
• How are bleed valves operated?
• What is the time limit for single engine APR thrust?
• Post roll-disconnect, is autopilot available?
• Pressing the TOGA buttons prior to takeoff does?
• Pushing the cargo smoke switchlight triggers which actions?
• What is the purpose of the second cargo fire bottle?
• The APU fuel pump is powered by which electrical supply?
• The maximum APU starting altitude for the 700/900 is 37,000 feet. Which statement is true?
• In flight, is there ITT protection that auto shuts down the engine if ITT limits are approached?
• During flight, with the hydraulic switches in the auto position, what conditions are required to cause pumps 1B and 2B to operate?
• When is the DC emergency bus displayed on the DC synoptic page?
• How does the parking brake maintain pressure after the hydraulic systems are shut down?
• From which sources do the yaw dampers receive data?
• Which statement about APU oil temperature or oil pressure shutdown is true?
• During engine warm-up, when may you advance N1 above idle?
• Illumination of the Ac Essential Transfer switchlight means?
• What is the minimum airspeed for the ADG to operate?
• What powers the operability valve?
• Which aural warning is used for windshear and terrain?
• What indications will the pilot have when an increasing performance wind shear condition is encountered?
• The N1 fan is driven by which turbine stage?
• How many traffic symbols are displayed on the MFD for a good TCAS test, and what colors are they?
• When using cross side tuning on the RTU, what color will the displays be?
• Which side houses the autopilot roll control servo?
• Which item is NOT on the accessory gearbox?
• Which aural warnings can the DCU generate?
• Cross talk between engines FADEC occurs when the N1 difference reaches what threshold?
• What system controls the passenger mask auto deployment?
• What is the maximum fuel imbalance allowed during overwing refueling?
• What does turbulence mode provide?
• If hydraulic systems two and three fail, what gear extension method is required?
• If the APU shuts down automatically due to fire in flight will the bottle fire?
• The FADEC is powered by which arrangement depending on N2?
• Where is the main battery located?
• Which systems provide power to the brakes?
• At what wing tank capacity do the transfer ejector valves open to transfer fuel from center tanks to wing tanks?
• What gathers data for EICAS displays?
• What is important to remember about the oxygen generators?
• Why are there two Cargo fire bottles if they can be only used in one compartment?
• Which protection minimizes flutter of the ailerons when PCU hydraulic pressure is lost?
• How does halon work to fight a fire?
• What is the ADG's electrical output?
• What happens if there is an engine driven pump problem?
• What is the maximum permissible time for ground operations with only DC power?
• For the 900 aircraft, the required pavement length for an 180-degree turn is 80 feet. Which option is correct?
• What activates the rudder bungee break-out system?
• Which pitot tube provides information to the integrated standby instrument (ISI)?
• Can raw data from the magnetic level indicators be used to determine the fuel level?
• Which statement best describes a Transformer Rectifier Unit (TRU) in the electrical system?
• Which option is NOT an engine idle state?
• In a decreasing wind shear condition, which sequence occurs?
• What color does the brake temperature monitoring system display brake heat in?
• What is the primary function of the hydraulic accumulator?
• How many brake assemblies are powered by hydraulic systems two and three?
• What purpose does the accumulator serve?
• How many walk-around bottles are there and where are they located?
• How many minutes of oxygen are provided by the passenger oxygen generators?
• How are the tires thermally protected from blowout?
• When do the spoilers retract after landing?
• When is the go around mode armed on approach?
• The FDR stores 25 hours of data.
• What does the cargo firebottle discharge switchlight illumination indicate?
• Which items are powered by the DC emergency bus?
• When the APU start-stop switch light is pressed, which observation occurs first?
• To what discharge pressure do the pressure regulating shut off valves regulate?
• Which hydraulic systems power the flight controls?
• What indication will be present with a PCU runaway?
• What is the function of the trend vector on the airspeed tape?
• What items are on the accessory gearbox?
• Which advisory provides the longer warning and by how many seconds?
• What is the maximum pavement required for an 180-degree turn for the 700 and 900, respectively?
• APR is armed on takeoff when the current thrust is within what percentage of the target thrust?
• How many chimes are heard for a caution message?
• If hydraulic reservoir is outside of the normal range, what color will the digital quantity be displayed in?
• What component maintains nose wheel centering after hydraulic pressure is removed?
• What does N2 synchronization tolerance mean regarding left and right engine N2 readings?
• If we wait for the FADEC to shut the engine down during a hot start are we guaranteed that the ITT will not be exceeded?
• What powers the DC emergency bus?
• Which statement correctly describes how nose wheel centering is initiated after takeoff?
• Which aircraft system has single loop fire detection and no fire protection?
• How are the slats and flaps operated?
• How many ignition exciters are there, and what are their labels?
• Under what condition does the APU extinguishing bottle discharge automatically?
• How many PBE are there?
• What is the purpose of the anti-skid control unit (ASU) in brake management?
• Rudder travel is restricted from which degrees based on flap position and airspeed?
• What are the five different engine idles?
• Which control column is the autopilot pitch servo connected to?
• Aside from digital readouts, is there any other way to determine fuel quantity?
• If pump 1a or 2a Fail, will the respective electric pump activate automatically?
• Auto trim is also known as what?
• Touchdown protection requires weight on wheels to be maintained for how many seconds before braking can occur?
• Where is the hydraulic heat exchanger located?
• What is the N1 synchronization requirement between the left and right engines?
• What is the AHRS initialization time on the ground and in flight?
• If the APU is left unattended, can the groundcrew shut it down?
• What powers hydraulic pump 3B?
• In normal FADEC operation, which channel actively commands engine control?
• In flight, which system compensates for pitch and roll in the capacitance fuel gauge readings?
• What do the different colors in the Hydraulic synoptic page mean?
• At what altitude will the passenger oxygen masks deploy?
• What items are on the utility bus?
• Under what condition will the essential TRU two tie close and display on the DC synoptic page?
• What is the recording interval of the cockpit voice recorder?
• What kind of hydraulic fluid is used? And what color is it?
• Which items are powered by the ADG?
• What do the TOGA switches on the thrust levers do during a go around?
• What is the maximum heat produced by the oxygen generators?
• When does the FDR start recording?
• What is flex thrust?
• What is radar attenuation?
• During extension, which moves first and which retracts last?
• For the FDR start, which condition is correct?
• When will the flap gauge disappear?
• Will the engine automatically shut down for a hot start on the ground?
• How can the engine hydraulic shut off valves be closed?
• How are the thrust reversers actuated and locked?
• Where is the bulk fuel temperature sensor located?
• Which sequence describes the path of fuel from the center tanks to the engines?
• Where can the flightcrew find procedures to clear a steering inoperative nuisance message?
• What holds the main gear in the retracted position?
• If a thrust reverser deploys in flight, the FADEC will reduce the engine to which thrust setting?
• What speed must be maintained in flight to power the AC essential bus when the ADG is deployed?
• In cruise flight, what does the blue circle on the N1 gauge indicate?
• What mode are the aircraft transponders?
• Which component locks the brakes to trap hydraulic system III pressure?
• When the APU power fuel switch light is pressed, which messages are displayed?
• Within what altitude range is the emergency depress switch approved for use?
• On the PFD, what color represents the current flight mode in the flight mode annunciator?
• Can brake wear indicators be checked without applying brakes?
• Which component monitors proximity to determine gear status?
• What action helps regain rudder control if the rudder is jammed?
• What does the 120 minute rolling Loop CVR recording interval indicate?
• What does the green avail light on the electrical power control panel indicate?
• How many buses are powered by the ADG during an ADG event?
• Which aural warning is used for a fire?
• After a landing or a rejected takeoff, what is the minimum turn around time?